Surgical Technology MCQ: May 2017

a. Presurgical, intersurgical, and after surgical
b. Preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative
c. Parasurgical, intrasurgical, and postsurgical
d. Preoperative, intraoperative, and postsurgical

Answer: B

Surgical technologists must be free of communicable diseases and chemical abuse.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Surgical technologists do not have to worry about punctuality.

a. True
b. False

Answer: B

The surgical technologist must be able to do all of the following except:

a. lift 200 pounds
b. refrain from nourishment and bathroom breaks for 6 hours
c. ambulate without assistive devices
d. make appropriate judgment decisions

Answer: A

The circulator is one of the non sterile team members in the operating room.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

A circulator may be a(n):

a. All of these choices are correct.
b. Registered nurse (RN) only
c. Certified surgical technologist (CST) only
d. Licensed practical nurse (LPN) only

Answer: A

DeBakey is a name used for several types of instruments.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

Power tools are powered by:

a. Nitrogen
b. All of these choices are correct.
c. Electricity
d. Batteries

Answer: B

A hemostat is a _____ instrument.

a. Clamping
b. Holding
c. Grasping
d. Dissecting

Answer: A

A speculum is a _____ instrument.

a. Clamping
b. Grasping
c. Viewing
d. Dissecting

Answer: C

Most modern surgical instruments are made of:

a. Bronze
b. Stainless steel
c. Wood
d. Aluminum

Answer: B

What type of finish is used on most instruments?

a. Dull
b. Polished
c. Black chromium
d. Scratched

Answer: B

Active drains use negative pressure to remove fluids.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

An ostomy bag is applied over a stoma to contain excretions.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Insufflators are used to push _____ into the areas where insufflation is needed.

a. Nitrous oxide
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Air
d. Argon

Answer: B

Another name for a Pezzer catheter is batwing.

a. True
b. False

Answer: B

An Adson can come with or without teeth.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

Tubes are used to remove air and fluids from the body for decompression purposes.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Packing can be used to eliminate dead space.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

A cryotherapy unit uses:

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Freon
c. Liquid nitrogen
d. All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D

The use of the fingers for dissection purposes is considered sharp dissection.

a. False
b. True

Answer: A

An Adson is a type of tissue forceps.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

What size blade fits on a #4 handle?

a. #11
b. #12
c. #10
d. #20

Answer: D

For an arteriotomy, a #11 blade is generally placed on a #_____ handle.

a. 3
b. 4
c. 9
d. 7

Answer: D

A hemostat is a type of clamp.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT a classification of instruments?

a. Cutting
b. Dilating
c. Sliding
d. Grasping

Answer: C

Malecot catheters have a four-winged shape.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Which scissor is most likely to be used to cut sutures?

a. Straight Metzenbaum
b. Straight Mayo
c. Curved Metzenbaum
d. Curved Mayo

Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT a name for tissue forceps?

a. DeBakey forceps
b. Thumb forceps
c. Pick-ups
d. Plumbs

Answer: D

A cutting/dissecting instrument is used for:A cutting/dissecting instrument is used for:

A cutting/dissecting instrument is used for:

a. Making an incision
b. Excising tissue
c. Sharp dissection
d. All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D

An eye pad is a rigid shield placed over the eye.

a. False
b. True

Answer: A

A retractor is used for:

a. Grasping
b. Clamping
c. Viewing
d. Dissecting

Answer: C

On a ringed instrument, the mechanism that holds the ringed handles in place when they are pressed together is called the:

a. Ratchet
b. Finger ring
c. Shank
d. Jaw

Answer: A

A _____ is a type of suction.

a. Poole
b. Yankauer
c. Fraser
d. All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D

A mosquito is a type of retractor.

a. False
b. True

Answer: A

_____ come in flexible or rigid styles.

a. Poole suctions
b. Hemostats
c. Scalpels
d. Endoscopes

Answer: D

Ribbon retractors are also called malleable.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

A Robinson catheter is a red rubber catheter.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

A Weitlaner is a type of.

a. Dissector
b. Grasping forceps
c. Retractor
d. Clamp

Answer: C

An instrument that is made to bend in different ways is said to be:

a. Broken
b. Mailben
c. Malleable
d. Bendable

Answer: C

A Babcock is a grasping clamp.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Endoscopes are used:

a. All of these choices are correct.
b. Postoperatively
c. Intraoperatively
d. Preoperatively

Answer: A

Scissors are used for sharp dissection.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Catheters can be used to remove fluid or objects from the body.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

A Crile is a type of grasper.

a. True
b. False

Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT one of the main factors that influence the rate of wound healing?

a. Physical condition of the patient
b. Whether the principles of asepsis were followed during surgery
c. Radiation exposure
d. Intraoperative tissue handling

Answer: C

A cicatrix is a normal scar formation.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

A cicatrix is:

a. A raised, thickened scar
b. Excessive granulation tissue
c. A normal scar formation
d. A bug

Answer: C

Which of the following would make a good eye suture size?

a. 11
b. 5-0
c. 11-0
d. 1

Answer: C

Chronic wounds persist for an extended period of time.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

Nylon is nonabsorbable.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

A sinus is a tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at one end.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

A(n) _____ is a tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at each end.

a. Sinus tract
b. Fistula
c. Adhesion
d. Hernia

Answer: B

In terms of tissue handling, friable means:

a. Easily torn
b. Frequent
c. Cooks easily with an electrosurgery unit (ESU)
d. Infection

Answer: A

Which of the following is a multifilament nonabsorbable suture?

a. Surgical silk
b. Monocryl
c. None of these choices is correct.
d. Polyglactin 910

Answer: A

Vicryl is a brand name.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Another name for a stick tie is:

a. Suture ligature
b. Long tie
c. All of these choices are correct.
d. Free-tie

Answer: A

A scrape is a(n):

a. Abrasion
b. Contusion
c. Laceration
d. Puncture

Answer: A

Polyglactin 910 is absorbable.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Three types of wound healing have been identified.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

Third-intention wound healing is delayed primary closure.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

The goal of postoperative wound care is to prevent infection and other complications.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

The end of the needle where the suture attaches is called the:

a. Body
b. Eye
c. Point
d. None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B

One of the classic local signs of inflammation is pain.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

Of the following, which is considered the largest in diameter for suture materials?

a. 2-0
b. 4-0
c. 1
d. 7-0

Answer: C

Phase 1 of wound healing by first intention is the:

a. Lag phase
b. Maturation phase
c. Cicatrix phase
d. Proliferation phase

Answer: A

Ligatures are also called:

a. Hemostats
b. Ligament forceps
c. Ties
d. Ligament covers

Answer: C

Phase 2 of wound healing by first intention is the proliferation phase.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

Smoking can affect wound healing.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

There are five classic local signs of the inflammatory process.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Age can affect wound healing.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

In an abdominal wound closure, the first layer sutured closed is the:

a. Fascia
b. Skin
c. Muscle
d. Peritoneum

Answer: D

If a suture is classified as monofilament, it is made up of _____ thread-like structure(s).

a. Three
b. More than three
c. Two
d. One

Answer: D

A hernia can be a result of wound dehiscence.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

A bruise is a(n):

a. Contusion
b. Laceration
c. Puncture
d. Abrasion

Answer: A

The package color for plain gut suture material is:

a. Yellow
b. Brown
c. Blue
d. Purple

Answer: A

A keloid is a raised, thickened scar caused by excessive collagen formation.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

Second-intention healing is:

a. A cicatrix
b. Delayed primary closure
c. A keloid
d. Granulation of the wound

Answer: D

A fistula is a tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Which of the following factors does NOT affect wound healing?

a. Age
b. Nutritional status
c. Smoking
d. Insurance status

Answer: D

The proliferation phase of wound healing by first intention begins on about the third postoperative day.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

An adhesion is an abnormal attachment of two surfaces that are normally separate.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT a monofilament absorbable suture?

a. Monocryl
b. PDS II
c. Chromic gut
d. Prolene

Answer: D

What type of wound presents for an extended period of time?

a. Chronic wound
b. Clean wound
c. Abrasion
d. Puncture

Answer: A

Tachycardia is a generic term for diseases of the myocardium.

a. False
b. True

Answer: A

Bradycardia is a slow heart rate.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Streptokinase can break down thrombi.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

If a person has a myocardial infarction, certain enzymes can be found in his or her blood.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

The Greek term scleros means hard.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

Age is one of the risk factors for coronary atherosclerosis.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Thoracic outlet syndrome is a group of symptoms associated with compression of the brachial plexus nerve complex and subclavian vessels at the superior aperture of the thorax.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

An aneurysm is a sac formed by localized dilatation of the walls of a vein due to structural weakening.

a. True
b. False

Answer: B

Treatment for cardiac tamponade must be immediate.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

The mediastinum is a bone.

a. True
b. False

Answer: B

Pectus carinatum is a deformity of the chest wall.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

The ductus venosus is a continuation of the umbilical vein.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

The atrioventricular (AV) node is located in the atrial septum.

a. False
b. True

Answer: B

The sinoatrial (SA) node is located in the left atrial wall.

a. False
b. True

Answer: A

The heart is the first organ to receive blood from the ascending aorta.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

Systole is the heart's phase of relaxation.

a. True
b. False

Answer: B

The pericardium has two parts.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

The middle layer of the heart is called the myocardium.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

The right lung has three lobes.

a. True
b. False

Answer: A

The heart has five chambers.

a. False
b. True

Answer: A

The failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to completely close after birth is called:

a. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
b. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
c. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
d. Atrioventricular malformation (AVM)

Answer: A

_____ is a faster-than-normal heartbeat.

a. A-fib
b. Bradycardia
c. V-fib
d. Tachycardia

Answer: D

_____ is a general term designating primary disease of the myocardium.

a. All of these choices are correct.
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Dysrhythmia
d. Infarction

Answer: B

_____ is a condition that occurs when air from a bronchus enters the pleural cavity but does not escape, increasing the pressure within the pleural cavity.

a. Hemothorax
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. Pneumoperitoneum
d. Tension pneumothorax

Answer: D

_____, characterized by a depressed chest, is the most common congenital deformity of the chest.

a. Pectus carinatum
b. Pigeon chest
c. Pectus excavatum
d. None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C

When does the foramen ovale close?

a. In the 14th week after conception
b. 1 year after birth
c. At birth
d. In the 7th week after conception

Answer: C

The amount of blood that is ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta or from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery is called the:

a. Cardiac output
b. Tidal volume
c. SA node
d. Purkinje volume

Answer: A

The atrioventricular valve is also known as the _____ valve.

a. Semilunar
b. Tricuspid
c. Mitral
d. None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C

The chambers of the heart are divided into right and left portions by the:

a. Atria
b. Septum
c. Pericardium
d. Atrioventricular (AV) fistula

Answer: B

Blood from the vena cava enters the heart at the:

a. Left atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Right ventricle
d. Right atrium

Answer: D

The innermost lining of the heart wall is called the:

a. Endocardium
b. Myocardium
c. Epicardium
d. Pericardium

Answer: A

How many layers does the heart have?

a. Three
b. Five
c. Four
d. Two

Answer: A

The heart is enclosed in the:

a. Periosteum
b. Peritoneum
c. Pericardium
d. Pleural membrane

Answer: C

There are _____ lobes in the right lung.

a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Six

Answer: B

The inner walls of the primary bronchus are lined with:

a. Ciliated mucosa only
b. Neither ciliated mucosa nor goblet cells
c. Goblet cells only
d. Both ciliated mucous and goblet cells

Answer: D

The trachea divides into the left and right bronchi at the:

a. Sixth thoracic vertebra
b. Diaphragm
c. Carina
d. Thyroid cartilage

Answer: C

The principal muscles of the thorax associated with inspiration are the _____ and the external intercostals.

a. Internal oblique
b. Diaphragm
c. External oblique
d. Subcostal

Answer: B

The thoracic cavity has _____ divisions.

a. Three
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

Answer: A

The human body has _____ ribs.

a. 18
b. 30
c. 24
d. 12

Answer: C

The superior part of the sternum is called the:

a. Pleura
b. Manubrium
c. Body
d. Xiphoid process

Answer: B